• Professorozone@lemmy.world
    link
    fedilink
    arrow-up
    2
    arrow-down
    4
    ·
    11 months ago

    It seems to me that if a house exists, someone owns it, unless you consider government possession NOT ownership.

    So if the government possesses the house, they should provide it as housing for free to someone, right?

    And a person CAN buy the house, but if that person is not going to live in it, he should provide it to a person to live in either rent free OR at a price that is not more than the taxes and costs so that it is essentially provided non-profit. Correct?

    • Gabu@lemmy.ml
      link
      fedilink
      arrow-up
      2
      arrow-down
      2
      ·
      edit-2
      11 months ago

      It seems to me that if a house exists, someone owns it, unless you consider government possession NOT ownership.

      Even if you argue for the ownership of a house, the land it sits on is ultimately owned by the state, so I don’t think that’s a very productive topic…

      So if the government possesses the house, they should provide it as housing for free to someone, right?

      Not necessarily for free (although, as I stated, that would be ideal), but certainly not for profit.

      And a person CAN buy the house, but if that person is not going to live in it, he should provide it to a person to live in either rent free OR at a price that is not more than the taxes and costs so that it is essentially provided non-profit. Correct?

      That would be incentivised, yes.