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The original was posted on /r/askhistorians by /u/AthenOwl on 2023-10-31 04:08:41+00:00.

The situation that lead to the lex Gabinia and lex Manilia being created seemed like the perfect scenario for Rome to appoint a dictator. However, they didn’t. Why not? It seems that with the exception of the creation of the 12 tables of roman law, everyone in Rome had avoided being tyrannical with emergency powers, so I can’t see a reason for them to be reluctant with appointing a dictator at this point in time.