Why were there very few, if any, diplomatic consequences after Francis I of Austria continued to wage war against Napoleon after their alliance, including Napoleon marrying his daughter?

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AskHistorians@zerobytes.monster · 1 year ago

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The original was posted on /r/askhistorians by /u/AthenOwl on 2023-10-31 04:11:29+00:00.

Why were none of the other members of the 6th and 7th coalitions annoyed at Francis switching sides, even if only briefly, and how was his reputation relatively unscathed? How was he able to so easily break the alliance after it had been sealed with a marriage ( including a child)? Was his honor questioned? Was this part of the trend against marriages being key parts of military and political alliances?

I could not find much information on this relatively niche sub topic. It seems to be brushed over in the articles I have read, instead focusing on the consequences for Napoleon

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