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The original was posted on /r/askhistorians by /u/Garrettshade on 2023-10-31 10:00:40+00:00.

Original Title: Can it be true that atomic bombs as a weapon have been largely “stigmatized” in the world politics because they were used against the population mostly, and not to achieve any significant military goal?

So, I read somewhere online recently, in a discussion related to Oppenheimer, that if the atomic bomb was used to kill Hitler, it would’ve “sanction” the use of the bomb further, make it a “righteous weapon”, but since it was too late to use against Germany, and the two cities were bombed, it’s become a “stigmatized” weapon.

Would you consider it true? I understand, that the targets for the bombing were chosen because of military targets in those cities, which is probably largely forgotten by the public now.